Read Daily Current Affairs on Our App

Fastest Hundred in T20 Internationals (2005–2026)

T20 cricket is known for explosive batting, and scoring a century in this format is always special. But scoring it in the fewest balls possible makes it even more historic. As of 2026, Sahil Chauhan of Estonia holds the record for the fastest century in T20 Internationals, reaching 100 in just 27 balls against Cyprus on 17 June 2024.

Fastest T20I Hundreds – Complete List (2005–2026)

Player Country Balls Match Venue Date
Sahil Chauhan Estonia 27 Estonia v Cyprus Episkopi 17 June 2024
Muhammad Fahad Turkey 29 Turkey v Bulgaria Sofia 12 July 2025
Jan Nicol Loftie-Eaton Namibia 33 Namibia v Nepal Kirtipur 27 Feb 2024
Sikandar Raza Zimbabwe 33 Zimbabwe v Gambia Nairobi (Ruaraka) 23 Oct 2024
Kushal Malla Nepal 34 Nepal v Mongolia Hangzhou 27 Sept 2023
David Miller South Africa 35 SA v Bangladesh Potchefstroom 29 Oct 2017
Rohit Sharma India 35 India v Sri Lanka Indore 22 Dec 2017
S Wickramasekara Czech Republic 35 Czech v Turkey Ilfov County 30 Aug 2019
Tim David Australia 37 Australia v WI St. Kitts 25 July 2025
Abhishek Sharma India 37 India v England Wankhede 2 Feb 2025
Sheikh Rasik Hungary 37 Hungary v Malta Marsa 4 Feb 2025
Phil Salt England 39 England v SA Manchester 12 Sept 2025
S Periyalwar Romania 39 Romania v Turkey Ilfov County 29 Aug 2019
Zeeshan Kukikhel Hungary 39 Hungary v Austria Lower Austria 5 June 2022
Johnson Charles West Indies 39 WI v SA Centurion 26 Mar 2023
K Kadowaki-Fleming Japan 40 Japan v South Korea Sano 15 Oct 2022
Ollie Hairs Scotland 40 Scotland v Italy Edinburgh 24 July 2023
Sanju Samson India 40 India v Bangladesh Hyderabad 12 Oct 2024
Faisal Khan Saudi Arabia 40 Saudi v Cambodia Doha 25 Nov 2024
HG Munsey Scotland 41 Scotland v Netherlands Dublin 16 Sept 2019
Shaheryar Butt Belgium 41 Belgium v Czech Walferdange 29 Aug 2020
Tilak Varma India 41 India v South Africa Johannesburg 15 Nov 2024
Hazratullah Zazai Afghanistan 42 Afghanistan v Ireland Dehradun 23 Feb 2019
Liam Livingstone England 42 England v Pakistan Nottingham 17 July 2021
Jean-Pierre Kotze Namibia 43 Namibia v Botswana Windhoek 20 Aug 2019
Quinton de Kock South Africa 43 SA v WI Centurion 26 Mar 2023
Josh Inglis Australia 43 Australia v Scotland Edinburgh 6 Sept 2024
Aritra Dutta Singapore 44 Singapore v Japan Bangkok 11 Feb 2024
Kusal Perera Sri Lanka 44 Sri Lanka v NZ Nelson 2 Jan 2025
Hasan Nawaz Pakistan 44 Pakistan v NZ Auckland 21 Mar 2025

Interesting T20I Century Facts

  • Chris Gayle scored the first-ever T20I century (117 runs) against South Africa in the 2007 T20 World Cup.
  • Aaron Finch holds the highest individual T20I score — 172 runs vs Zimbabwe (2018).
  • Glenn Maxwell and Rohit Sharma have scored 5 T20I centuries each — the joint record.
  • Gustav McKeon (France) is the youngest T20I centurion at 18 years 280 days.

MCQ’s

1. Who holds the record for the fastest century in T20 Internationals (2005–2026)?
A. Muhammad Fahad
B. Sahil Chauhan
C. Jan Nicol Loftie-Eaton
D. David Miller

2. In how many balls did Sahil Chauhan score the fastest T20I century?
A. 29 balls
B. 30 balls
C. 27 balls
D. 33 balls

3. Which country does Muhammad Fahad represent?
A. Bulgaria
B. Estonia
C. Turkey
D. Cyprus

4. Who scored the first-ever century in T20 International cricket?
A. Rohit Sharma
B. Chris Gayle
C. David Miller
D. Aaron Finch

5. Against which team did Chris Gayle score the first T20I century?
A. Australia
B. India
C. South Africa
D. Pakistan

6. Who holds the record for the highest individual score in T20 Internationals?
A. Glenn Maxwell
B. Rohit Sharma
C. Aaron Finch
D. Chris Gayle

7. What is the highest individual score in T20 Internationals?
A. 175
B. 172
C. 170
D. 165

8. Which two players have scored the most T20I centuries (5 each)?
A. Chris Gayle & Rohit Sharma
B. Rohit Sharma & Glenn Maxwell
C. Virat Kohli & Aaron Finch
D. David Miller & Babar Azam

9. Who became the youngest centurion in T20 Internationals?
A. Gustav McKeon
B. Tilak Varma
C. Hazratullah Zazai
D. Abhishek Sharma

10. In which year did Sahil Chauhan score the fastest T20I century?
A. 2023
B. 2024
C. 2025
D. 2022

India vs Pakistan – T20 World Cup MCQs

The India vs Pakistan clash in the ICC T20 World Cup is one of the most important topics for competitive exams. Questions are often asked about venues, years, winners, records, and key performances. From the 2007 bowl-out to the thrilling 2022 Melbourne match and the upcoming 2026 Colombo encounter, this rivalry has created many exam-relevant facts. Practicing MCQs from these matches helps in Banking, SSC, Railway, and State PCS exams.

Q1. The first India–Pakistan match in the ICC T20 World Cup (2007) was decided by which method?
(a) Super Over
(b) DLS Method
(c) Boundary Count
(d) Bowl-out
(e) Toss
Ans: (d) Bowl-out

Q2. The 2007 ICC T20 World Cup final between India and Pakistan was held in which country?
(a) England
(b) India
(c) South Africa
(d) Australia
(e) UAE
Ans: (c) South Africa

Q3. Pakistan recorded its first victory over India in T20 World Cup history in which year?
(a) 2014
(b) 2016
(c) 2018
(d) 2021
(e) 2022
Ans: (d) 2021

Q4. Which Indian cricketer has scored the most runs against Pakistan in ICC T20 World Cups?
(a) Rohit Sharma
(b) Rishabh Pant
(c) Yuvraj Singh
(d) Virat Kohli
(e) Suresh Raina
Ans: (d) Virat Kohli

Q5. Who was awarded the Player of the Match in the India vs Pakistan ICC T20 World Cup 2024 match?

(a) Virat Kohli
(b) Rohit Sharma
(c) Hardik Pandya
(d) Jasprit Bumrah
(e) Arshdeep Singh

Ans: (d) Jasprit Bumrah

Q6. Who has taken the highest number of wickets for India against Pakistan in T20 World Cup matches?
(a) Jasprit Bumrah
(b) Bhuvneshwar Kumar
(c) Hardik Pandya
(d) Irfan Pathan
(e) Arshdeep Singh
Ans: (c) Hardik Pandya

Q7. The India vs Pakistan Group A match in the ICC T20 World Cup 2026 will be played at which stadium?
(a) Dubai International Stadium
(b) R. Premadasa Cricket Stadium
(c) Eden Gardens
(d) Gaddafi Stadium
(e) Sharjah Cricket Stadium

Ans: (b) R. Premadasa Cricket Stadium

Q8. The India vs Pakistan clash in the ICC T20 World Cup 2026 is scheduled as part of which group?
(a) Group B
(b) Group C
(c) Group D
(d) Group A
(e) Super 8

Ans: (d) Group A

Q9. Who was the captain of the Indian team in the 2007 ICC T20 World Cup final?
(a) Rahul Dravid
(b) MS Dhoni
(c) Sourav Ganguly
(d) Anil Kumble
(e) Virender Sehwag
Ans: (b) MS Dhoni

Q10. India has won how many matches against Pakistan in ICC T20 World Cups (till 2024)?
(a) 5
(b) 6
(c) 7
(d) 8
(e) 9
Ans: (c) 7

RBI Proposes Tighter Lending Norms for REITs and InvITs

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has issued draft guidelines allowing banks to lend to SEBI-registered Real Estate Investment Trusts (REITs), but with stricter eligibility conditions. The move aims to ensure financial stability while expanding structured financing options in the real estate and infrastructure sectors.

Under the draft Commercial Banks – Credit Facilities (Second Amendment) Directions, 2026, banks can lend only to REITs that are listed on stock exchanges and have at least three years of operational history with positive cash flows. This requirement is meant to ensure that only financially stable and experienced trusts receive bank funding.

Exposure Limits and Lending Structure

The RBI has proposed that the aggregate credit exposure of all banks to a REIT and its underlying Special Purpose Vehicles (SPVs) or holding companies must not exceed 49% of the value of the REIT’s assets as of March 31 of the previous financial year. Banks may impose even lower limits if decided by their respective Boards.

In addition, lending to REITs can only be in the form of term loans without bullet or balloon repayment structures. This means banks must avoid repayment models where the principal is paid in one large amount at the end of the loan tenure.

Restrictions on End-Use of Funds

The central bank has clearly stated that banks must strictly monitor the end use of funds. Lending through REITs should not be used to finance activities that are not permitted under RBI norms, particularly land acquisition, even if it is part of a larger project.

For refinancing purposes, banks can lend only for completed projects that have received a Completion Certificate (CC), Occupancy Certificate (OC), or equivalent approval.

Overseas Lending Conditions

The draft guidelines also permit overseas branches of Indian banks to lend to REITs established abroad, provided there is an effective insolvency or bankruptcy framework in that jurisdiction.

Similar Norms for InvITs

The RBI has also issued similar updated draft guidelines for bank exposure to Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs), aligning regulatory treatment for both investment vehicles.

Since REITs are structured as trusts, banks are advised to carefully assess legal provisions related to enforcement of security before extending credit.

Overall, the draft guidelines aim to balance growth in structured real estate and infrastructure financing with prudent risk management, ensuring that banks’ exposure remains within controlled limits.

MCQ’s

1. As per RBI draft guidelines, banks can lend only to REITs that are registered with which regulator?
A. IRDAI
B. SEBI
C. PFRDA
D. NABARD

2. A REIT must have a minimum operational history of how many years to be eligible for bank lending?
A. 1 year
B. 2 years
C. 3 years
D. 5 years

3. The REIT must have which of the following to qualify for bank lending?
A. Foreign investment
B. Positive cash flows
C. Government guarantee
D. Tax exemption

4. The aggregate credit exposure of all banks to a borrowing REIT and its SPVs cannot exceed what percentage of the REIT’s asset value?
A. 40%
B. 45%
C. 49%
D. 51%

5. The exposure limit of 49% is calculated based on asset value as of which date?
A. April 1 of current FY
B. December 31 of previous FY
C. March 31 of previous FY
D. June 30 of previous FY

6. Bank lending to REITs cannot involve which type of repayment structure?
A. EMI-based repayment
B. Quarterly repayment
C. Bullet or balloon repayment
D. Floating rate repayment

7. Banks must ensure that funds lent to REITs are not used for which activity?
A. Infrastructure development
B. Completed projects
C. Land acquisition
D. Lease rentals

8. Overseas branches of Indian banks can lend to overseas REITs only if which mechanism exists?
A. SEBI approval
B. RBI guarantee
C. Effective insolvency/bankruptcy mechanism
D. Sovereign bond support

9. Bank refinancing of SPV term loans is allowed only for projects that have received which certificate?
A. Environmental Clearance
B. Completion or Occupancy Certificate
C. GST Registration
D. Export License

10. The RBI issued similar updated draft exposure guidelines for which other investment vehicle?
A. Mutual Funds
B. Hedge Funds
C. Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs)
D. Alternative Investment Funds (AIFs)

Vast Space Signs Deal with NASA for Private ISS Mission

Vast Space, a privately-held American aerospace company, has signed an order with NASA for its sixth private astronaut mission (PAM) to the International Space Station (ISS). The mission is targeted to launch no earlier than summer 2027 from Florida.

This will be Vast’s first private astronaut mission in partnership with NASA and marks a significant step toward commercial space station operations.

Mission Details

The crew is expected to spend up to 14 days aboard the ISS. The launch will take place using SpaceX’s Falcon 9 rocket, with astronauts traveling in a Dragon spacecraft. The final launch date will depend on space station traffic and operational planning.

According to Max Haot, CEO of Vast, utilizing the remaining life of the ISS for science-led commercial missions is essential for transitioning toward fully commercial space stations and expanding the orbital economy.

Haven-1: World’s First Commercial Space Station

Vast is developing Haven-1, expected to launch in 2027. It aims to become the world’s first commercial space station. Additional Haven modules are planned to enable a permanent human presence in orbit by 2030.

The upcoming mission will help Vast gain critical insights into infrastructure, safety systems, and operational procedures required for future human spaceflight missions.

Focus on Science and Research

The mission will prioritize:

  • Biology and biotechnology research
  • Physical sciences experiments
  • Human research studies
  • Technology demonstrations

Vast has already invited research proposals and signed an agreement with CASIS to enhance scientific output aligned with its long-term strategy.

Interest in Indian Market

Vast is also exploring opportunities in India. CEO Max Haot attended the Global Space Exploration Conference last year, focusing on collaborations in human spaceflight and space station development.

This agreement highlights growing private sector participation in space exploration and signals a shift toward commercially operated space stations in the coming decade.

MCQ’s

1. Vast Space has signed an order with which organization for a private astronaut mission to the ISS?
A. ESA
B. ISRO
C. NASA
D. SpaceX

2. The sixth private astronaut mission by Vast Space is targeted to launch no earlier than:
A. Summer 2025
B. Summer 2026
C. Summer 2027
D. Summer 2028

3. The mission will be launched using which rocket?
A. Starship
B. Falcon Heavy
C. Falcon 9
D. Atlas V

4. The astronauts will travel to the ISS aboard which spacecraft?
A. Orion
B. Dragon
C. Soyuz
D. Starliner

5. The crew of Vast’s private astronaut mission is expected to stay on the ISS for up to:
A. 7 days
B. 10 days
C. 14 days
D. 30 days

6. What is the name of Vast Space’s planned commercial space station?
A. Gateway-1
B. Haven-1
C. Orbital-X
D. Astra Station

7. Haven-1 is expected to launch in which year?
A. 2026
B. 2027
C. 2028
D. 2030

8. Vast plans to enable permanent human presence in orbit by:
A. 2028
B. 2029
C. 2030
D. 2035

9. Who is the CEO of Vast Space?
A. Elon Musk
B. Jim Free
C. Max Haot
D. Bill Nelson

10. Vast’s mission will primarily focus on research in which of the following areas?
A. Marine Biology
B. Biotechnology and Physical Sciences
C. Agriculture
D. Nuclear Engineering

RBI Hikes Banks’ M&A Financing Limit to 20% of Tier-1 Capital

The Reserve Bank of India (RBI) has revised its draft guidelines on acquisition financing, allowing banks to fund mergers and acquisitions (M&A) up to 20% of their Tier-1 capital, doubling the earlier proposed cap of 10%. The move is expected to provide greater flexibility to banks and boost corporate deal-making in India.

Under the new draft directions, a bank’s aggregate capital market exposure (CME) — on both solo and consolidated basis — must not exceed 40% of its eligible capital base. Within this limit, the direct capital market exposure, including investment exposures, cannot exceed 20%. Importantly, the bank’s total exposure to acquisition finance is now capped at 20% of eligible capital, but still within the overall 40% CME ceiling.

Funding Cap and Conditions

Banks will be allowed to finance up to 75% of the acquisition value, covering both listed and unlisted entities, subject to regulatory norms. Additionally, the RBI has mandated a debt-equity ratio of 3:1 for the acquiring company and the target entity on a consolidated basis.

The acquisition must result in the acquirer obtaining control of the target company either through:

  • A single transaction, or
  • A series of interconnected transactions completed within 12 months from the date of the acquisition agreement.

This clarification provides structured guidance on leveraged buyouts and corporate restructuring deals.

Expanded Lending Scope

The RBI has also broadened the scope of permissible lending by allowing banks to lend against:

  • Government securities
  • Sovereign Gold Bonds (SGBs)
  • Shares and Non-Convertible Debentures (NCDs)
  • Mutual funds
  • Exchange-Traded Funds (ETFs)
  • Infrastructure Investment Trusts (InvITs)

Loan-to-Value (LTV) ratios have been specified as:

  • 75% for mutual funds
  • 60% for shares and NCDs
  • 85% for debt mutual funds

Impact on Corporate M&A

Experts believe the move opens doors for leveraged buyouts (LBOs) and enables banks to directly finance acquisition of control stakes, including overseas acquisitions, instead of routing such funding under general corporate purposes.

By raising the financing limit and clarifying exposure norms, the RBI aims to balance risk management with business growth, ensuring stronger regulatory oversight while supporting India’s expanding corporate and capital markets ecosystem.

MCQ’s

Q1. What is the revised limit for banks’ acquisition financing as a percentage of Tier-1 capital under RBI’s draft guidelines?
(a) 10%
(b) 15%
(c) 20%
(d) 25%

Q2. What is the maximum aggregate Capital Market Exposure (CME) allowed for banks under the new draft norms?
(a) 30% of eligible capital base
(b) 35% of eligible capital base
(c) 40% of eligible capital base
(d) 50% of eligible capital base

Q3. Banks can fund up to what percentage of the acquisition value under the revised RBI guidelines?
(a) 60%
(b) 65%
(c) 70%
(d) 75%

Q4. What is the prescribed debt-equity ratio for the acquiring company and target company on a consolidated basis?
(a) 2:1
(b) 3:1
(c) 4:1
(d) 5:1

Q5. Within how many months must interconnected acquisition transactions be completed to obtain control?
(a) 6 months
(b) 9 months
(c) 12 months
(d) 18 months

Q6. What is the maximum Loan-to-Value (LTV) ratio permitted against mutual funds?
(a) 60%
(b) 70%
(c) 75%
(d) 85%

Q7. What is the LTV ratio set by RBI for loans against shares and NCDs?
(a) 50%
(b) 55%
(c) 60%
(d) 65%

Q8. What is the LTV ratio allowed for debt mutual funds under the new norms?
(a) 75%
(b) 80%
(c) 85%
(d) 90%

Joe Simon Passes Away After Cardiac Arrest at KFCC Meeting

Veteran Kannada filmmaker Joe Simon passed away on Friday after suffering a sudden cardiac arrest during a meeting at the Karnataka Film Chamber of Commerce (KFCC). He was 80. His sudden demise has sent shockwaves across the Kannada film industry, popularly known as Sandalwood.

Sudden Collapse During KFCC Meeting

Joe Simon was attending an emergency executive committee meeting at the Karnataka Film Chamber of Commerce around 4:30 pm when the incident occurred. According to those present, he was actively participating in discussions and even proposed organising a celebratory programme for the industry.

Shortly after stepping out of the meeting hall, he reportedly sat on an attendant’s chair and suddenly collapsed. Members later confirmed that he suffered a severe cardiac arrest. Despite immediate attention, he could not be revived.

Distinguished Career in Kannada Cinema

Joe Simon built a remarkable career spanning several decades, contributing to more than 100 films in multiple capacities. He was known as a director, actor, lyricist, and writer, earning respect for his versatility and commitment to cinema.

Among his notable directorial ventures was “Sahasa Simha”, starring legendary Kannada actor Vishnuvardhan. Other films directed by him include “Mr. Vasu,” “Snehada Kadalalli,” “Simha Jodi,” “Wanted,” and “Ravivarma.”

His films were recognised for their strong storytelling, emotional appeal, and commercial success, making him a prominent figure in Kannada cinema.

Tributes From Political and Film Fraternity

Condolences poured in from across political and film circles following the news of his passing. Karnataka Deputy Chief Minister D.K. Shivakumar described his death as an “irreparable loss” to the Kannada film industry.

Industry colleagues, actors, and fans expressed grief on social media, recalling his creative vision and long-standing contribution to Sandalwood.

Legacy in Sandalwood

Joe Simon remained actively engaged in the film fraternity even in his later years. His body of work continues to influence Kannada cinema, reflecting decades of dedication and artistic passion.

His passing marks the end of an era for the Kannada film industry, but his cinematic contributions will remain a lasting legacy.

India’s Top 5 Run-Scorers vs Pakistan in T20 World Cup

India–Pakistan matches in the T20 World Cup are always high-pressure contests, and several Indian batters have delivered memorable performances on the biggest stage. From match-winning knocks to crucial contributions in finals, here’s a look at the top five Indian batters with the most runs against Pakistan in T20 World Cup history.

India’s Top 5 Run-Scorers vs Pakistan in T20 World Cup

Rank Player Matches Runs Average Highest Score
1 Virat Kohli 6 312 156.00 82*
2 Rishabh Pant 2 81 40.50 —
3 Rohit Sharma 7 81 16.20 —
4 Gautam Gambhir — 75 — 75
5 Yuvraj Singh — 59 — 24

1. Virat Kohli – 312 Runs

At the top of the list is Virat Kohli, who has scored 312 runs in six innings against Pakistan in T20 World Cups.

  • Average: 156
  • Four half-centuries
  • Highest score: 82*

His unbeaten 82 in the 2022 T20 World Cup at Melbourne remains one of the greatest T20 innings, guiding India to a thrilling victory.

2. Rishabh Pant – 81 Runs

Wicketkeeper-batter Rishabh Pant stands second with 81 runs in just two matches.

  • Average: 40.5
  • Strike Rate: 132.78

Pant has shown aggressive intent and composure in crunch moments against Pakistan.

3. Rohit Sharma – 81 Runs

Former India captain Rohit Sharma has also scored 81 runs against Pakistan in the tournament.

  • Matches: 7
  • Average: 16.2

Despite being third on the list, Rohit has struggled for consistency against Pakistan in T20 World Cups.

4. Gautam Gambhir – 75 Runs

Gautam Gambhir ranks fourth with 75 runs.

  • Best performance: 75 runs in the 2007 T20 World Cup final

His crucial knock in the inaugural 2007 final at Johannesburg laid the foundation for India’s historic title win.

5. Yuvraj Singh – 59 Runs

All-rounder Yuvraj Singh completes the top five with 59 runs.

  • Highest score: 24

He was part of India’s squad in the famous 2007 final victory over Pakistan.

V.O. Chidambaranar Port Authority Secures IGBC Platinum & Shunya Certifications for Sustainable Infrastructure

In a major boost to India’s green infrastructure push, V.O. Chidambaranar (VOC) Port Authority has become the first Major Port in India to receive the prestigious IGBC Platinum Rating, the highest certification awarded by the Indian Green Building Council. The recognition has been granted to the Port’s Administration Building for its outstanding performance in sustainability, energy efficiency, and eco-friendly infrastructure.

Sustainable Infrastructure and Green Measures

The Administration Building operates under a structured Green Policy and waste management plan. It is equipped with rooftop solar panels and a high Solar Reflectance Index (SRI) roof coating, which helps reduce the Urban Heat Island effect and improves overall energy efficiency.

To enhance resource conservation, the Port has implemented:

  • IoT-enabled water meters
  • Indoor Air Quality (IAQ) monitoring systems
  • Rainwater harvesting systems
  • Water-saving plumbing fixtures

These measures have resulted in a 37% reduction in potable water consumption. Additionally, all wastewater is treated through an on-site Sewage Treatment Plant (STP) and fully reused within the premises.

100% Renewable Energy Operation

In a significant step towards decarbonisation, the Administration Building now runs entirely on renewable energy.

  • 89% electricity is generated through on-site solar power
  • 11% electricity is sourced from off-site renewable energy

This transition reflects the Port’s commitment to reducing carbon emissions and promoting clean energy adoption.

Shunya and Shunya Plus Certifications

Apart from the IGBC Platinum Rating, VOC Port has also secured Shunya and Shunya Plus certifications from the Bureau of Energy Efficiency under the Ministry of Power.

  • Shunya Certification signifies a Net Zero Energy Building, where annual energy consumption is fully met through renewable sources.
  • Shunya Plus Certification denotes a Net Positive Energy Building, which generates more renewable energy than it consumes.

Under this certification framework:

  • The Port Hospital and CISF Barracks received Shunya Plus Certification
  • The Administrative Building and Guest House received Shunya Certification

Focus on Inclusivity and Occupant Well-being

The Port has also prioritised health, safety, and accessibility. The building follows a No Smoking Policy, uses eco-friendly housekeeping chemicals, and ensures universal accessibility through:

  • Non-slippery ramps
  • Differently-abled-friendly toilets
  • Electric wheelchairs
  • Braille-enabled lifts with audio assistance

The campus maintains over 70% green cover, supported by extensive plantation drives.

Alignment with National Vision

The initiative aligns with Maritime India Vision 2030 and Harit Sagar – Green Port Guidelines, reinforcing India’s push toward sustainable port-led development. With this dual achievement, VOC Port has set a new benchmark for energy-efficient and environmentally responsible port infrastructure in the country.

MCQs

1. V.O. Chidambaranar Port Authority is located in which state?
(a) Kerala
(b) Tamil Nadu
(c) Andhra Pradesh
(d) Karnataka

2. The IGBC Platinum Rating is awarded by which organisation?
(a) Bureau of Energy Efficiency
(b) Indian Green Building Council
(c) NITI Aayog
(d) Ministry of Environment

3. Shunya Certification refers to which type of building?
(a) Carbon Neutral Building
(b) Net Zero Energy Building
(c) Smart Infrastructure Building
(d) Solar-Only Building

4. What percentage of electricity in the VOC Port Administration Building is generated on-site through solar power?
(a) 70%
(b) 75%
(c) 89%
(d) 100%

5. The sustainability initiatives of VOC Port are aligned with which national programme?
(a) Digital India
(b) Sagarmala Programme
(c) Maritime India Vision 2030
(d) Make in India

Most Wickets in India vs Pakistan T20 World Cup Matches

India–Pakistan clashes in T20 Internationals (T20Is) are among the most intense contests in world cricket. Over the years, several Indian bowlers have delivered match-winning performances against their arch-rivals. Here’s a look at the top five Indian wicket-takers vs Pakistan in T20Is, based on wickets, average, and strike rate.

Most Wickets in India vs Pakistan T20 World Cup Matches

1. Hardik Pandya – 14 Wickets

  • Innings: 7
  • Average: 13.57
  • Strike Rate: 10.5

Surprisingly, India’s highest wicket-taker against Pakistan in T20Is is not a frontline bowler but an all-rounder. Hardik Pandya has taken 14 wickets in just seven innings, striking almost every two overs.

Used mostly during the middle overs, Pandya’s clever variations, slower balls, and sharp pace changes have troubled Pakistan’s batters. Along with his finishing abilities with the bat, he has been one of India’s most valuable players in high-pressure encounters.

2. Bhuvneshwar Kumar – 11 Wickets

  • Innings: 7
  • Average: 17.18
  • Strike Rate: 14.1

Known for his swing bowling, Bhuvneshwar Kumar has often led India’s attack with the new ball. His ability to move the ball both ways, especially under lights, has consistently challenged Pakistan’s top order.

With 11 wickets at an average of 17.18, he has frequently provided crucial early breakthroughs that set the tone for India.

3. Arshdeep Singh – 7 Wickets

  • Innings: 4
  • Average: 17.57
  • Strike Rate: 13.4

At just 26 years old, Arshdeep Singh has already made a strong mark against Pakistan. His left-arm angle and calm temperament make him reliable both at the start and in the death overs.

His standout performance came in the 2022 T20 World Cup in Melbourne, where he dismissed Babar Azam (0) and Mohammad Rizwan (4) early in the innings. Seven wickets in four matches reflect his quick rise in these high-stakes games.

4. Jasprit Bumrah – 7 Wickets

  • Innings: 5
  • Average: 14.85
  • Strike Rate: 15.4

Though limited appearances due to injuries and scheduling, Jasprit Bumrah has been highly effective. His seven wickets have come at an excellent average under 15.

Renowned for his pinpoint yorkers and control in death overs, Bumrah has often been India’s go-to bowler in tight finishes. His impact extends beyond numbers, making him a decisive presence.

5. Irfan Pathan – 6 Wickets

  • Innings: 3
  • Average: 11.00
  • Strike Rate: 11.0

From India’s early T20 era, Irfan Pathan remains one of the most impactful bowlers against Pakistan. He took six wickets in just three matches at a remarkable average of 11.

In the famous tied T20I in Johannesburg (2007), Pathan delivered figures of 2/20, dismissing Younis Khan and Shoaib Malik, playing a key role in India’s performance.

Summary: Most T20I Wickets for India vs Pakistan

  1. Hardik Pandya – 14 wickets
  2. Bhuvneshwar Kumar – 11 wickets
  3. Arshdeep Singh – 7 wickets
  4. Jasprit Bumrah – 7 wickets
  5. Irfan Pathan – 6 wickets

These bowlers have consistently stepped up in one of cricket’s biggest rivalries, shaping memorable India–Pakistan T20 encounters.

Reliance Industries Limited Secures U.S. License to Import Venezuelan Oil

Reliance Industries has obtained a general license from the United States to import crude oil from Venezuela, according to sources. The license allows the Indian private-sector refiner to purchase Venezuelan crude while remaining compliant with U.S. regulations.

Background

Reliance was previously a regular buyer of Venezuelan crude before the U.S. imposed sanctions on the government of President Nicolas Maduro in 2019–20. The sanctions restricted global oil trade with Venezuela, impacting refiners like Reliance that were sourcing heavy crude from the South American nation.

Strategic Importance

  • Reliance operates the world’s largest single-site refining complex at Jamnagar, Gujarat.
  • Venezuelan crude is suitable for complex refineries designed to process heavy oil.
  • The license provides supply diversification amid global geopolitical uncertainties.

The development reflects evolving U.S.–Venezuela oil policy and could impact global crude trade flows.

Significance for India

  • Enhances India’s crude sourcing flexibility
  • Supports refining margins
  • Strengthens energy security

The move comes at a time when global oil markets remain volatile due to geopolitical tensions and supply disruptions.

Key Facts for Exams

  • Company: Reliance Industries Limited
  • Location of refinery: Jamnagar, Gujarat
  • License issued by: United States authorities
  • Sanctions on Venezuela imposed: 2019–20
  • Venezuelan crude: Heavy oil suited for complex refineries

MCQs

Q1. Which Indian company has secured a U.S. license to import Venezuelan crude oil?
(a) ONGC
(b) Indian Oil Corporation
(c) Reliance Industries Limited
(d) Bharat Petroleum
(e) Essar Oil

Q2. The refining complex of Reliance Industries is located at:
(a) Mumbai
(b) Jamnagar
(c) Visakhapatnam
(d) Kochi
(e) Paradip

Q3. The U.S. imposed sanctions on Venezuela primarily during which period?
(a) 2015–16
(b) 2017–18
(c) 2019–20
(d) 2021–22
(e) 2023–24

Q4. The sanctions were imposed on the government led by which Venezuelan President?
(a) Hugo Chávez
(b) Juan Guaidó
(c) Nicolas Maduro
(d) Rafael Correa
(e) Evo Morales

Q5. Venezuelan crude oil is generally classified as:
(a) Light sweet crude
(b) Shale oil
(c) Heavy crude oil
(d) Condensate
(e) Synthetic crude

Union Budget 2026-27

Latest Current Affairs PDF

Fastest Hundred in T20 Internationals (2005–2026)_13.1

Monthly Current Affairs

February 2026
M T W T F S S
 1
2345678
9101112131415
16171819202122
232425262728  

Recent Posts

IMPORTANT EXAMS

Our Other Websites

Welcome to the Current Affairs Section of Adda247. If you are preparing for Government Job Exams, then it is very important for you to read the Daily Current Affairs. All the important updates based on current affairs are included in this Daily Current Affairs 2026 article.

Download Adda247 App

google store

Follow us on

  • youtube
  • facebook
  • twitter
  • telegram
  • linkedin
  • whatsapp

Discover Our Other Platforms

careersadda career247 Prepinsta careerpower studyiq Adda247
© 2026 Adda247. All rights reserved.
QR Code
Scan Me
600+ Exams' PYQ + Mock Tests with "TEST PRIME"
Attempt Now Free